Am I unusual?

**Alex** · 11-08-2003, 02:49 AM

Ever since I first got glasses, about 8 years ago, my prescription has been between -1 and -1.50 which is my current prescription. Typically I just wore them for driving and tv/movies but in the last year I started to notice quite a difference without them so I imagine that I'll find my prescription has increased next time I go for a checkup. But I'm 38 and understood that shortsightedness doesn't generally increase at that sort of age. So I wondered whether the people here could share their knowledge with me - is it likely that I will need an increase or have my eyes changed in some other way? And is that unusual at my age?

**chip anderson** · 11-08-2003, 08:29 AM

As to the nearsightedness, it can change. Rarely it can even become less. However no more nearsighted than you are at this age, it probably won't change much. Now for the bad news, you will soon become presbyoptic and need a bifocal. However due to the nearsightedness you may choose to fake it and take your glasses off to read. However eventually as you age, (unless you become more nearsighted) you will have to relent around age 48 (sooner if you have short arms) and wear a bifocal to read.

Chip

**paw** · 11-09-2003, 01:04 PM

ODs, help me out here. My understanding is that a large shift in Rx could be due to diabetes. Not to alarm you, Alex, but it might be worth checking out.

**Optom** · 11-09-2003, 05:47 PM

Paw,

Your understanding is correct,one of the reasons for large shift in myopic Rx can be abnormally high level of sugar in blood.It would be a good idea to see MD to get it checked.

Regards,
Optom

**Stopper** · 11-10-2003, 08:48 AM

Alex,
although I wouldn't expect much change at your age, it can still happen and is not abnormal. Just not typical. In optics, even a small change can have a big impact on how you see. A small shift may have just pushed you over the line from part-time to full time wear. I tell my patients, that with optics, a little goes along way.
Diabetes is a possibility but I wouldn't get all worked up about that at this point unless you have symptoms or signs of it such as recent weight gain, thirsty all the time, excess urination and fluctuations in vision. See you eye doc, if only a small change, you may just need to wear your glasses more often. Good luck

**Alex** · 11-10-2003, 03:15 PM

Stopper - thankfully I don't have any of the symptoms of diabetes that you describe and I am generally in excellent health. Your comment "A small shift may have just pushed you over the line from part-time to full time wear" makes me curious - with my current -1.50 how 'small' would that shift have to be? I suppose my question, prompted by what you said, is so where is that line between part-time and full-time wear?

**aaron** · 11-10-2003, 03:48 PM

Alex,

The answer to your question is a matter of perception. Depending on how significantly the change makes you see better, will determine how much you want to wear them. I have a patient that has half your Rx and wears them full time because she feels as though it gives her better vision all of the time. There is no specific number that will determine when you wear them full time and when you don't. Take care!

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**Judy Canty** · 11-10-2003, 05:33 PM

Significant myopic changes are also indicative of keratoconus, but let's not start jumping to conclusions. You may have been able to compensate, or "force" yourself to see without depending on your glasses. My husband did it for years while flying for the Navy. However, at about 30 years old, he suddenly and I mean suddenly like trying to land his bird on the ship at night, he could not see clearly. He was in the OD's chair the next morning and found that he needed -1.00 spheres to see well. Don't sweat the small stuff until you see your eye care professional.

BTW, Keith has picked up more minus and a bit of cyl over the past few years. No problems, just normal changes and of course he's wearing progressives now.

**Alex** · 11-12-2003, 03:05 PM

Thank everyone for taking the trouble to reply.

Judy's comment fits with something that someone said to me today. They believe that a person's ability to tolerate a visual imperfection decreases with age. Their theory being that my prescription may not necessarily have increased, just that as my eyes and I have got older (and, I suppose, nearer to the big 4-0) they aren't so good at putting up with it.

Does anyone believe that to be true and does tolerance actually vary, even amongst younger people?

**paw** · 11-12-2003, 07:58 PM

"...a person's ability to tolerate a visual imperfection decreases with age."

I would amend that to say a person's ability to tolerate a CHANGE in visual imperfection decreases with age. It's not so much the imperfection but the CHANGE. Old folks can tolerate their imperfect vision in the manner they are used to, but put them in a new Rx and they can't get used to it easily. Kids will put on a new pair and say "Whoa, what a change" but then they scamper out the door and that's it. The older folks put on the glasses and say "Whoa, what a change, I'd better not put these on until I get home. I don't want to drive in these right away."

But that's OK. Just as long as they don't switch back and forth. Once they get home, they should put the old glasses away and just wear the new. They'll get used to them over time.