I was wondering if there was any protocol for this situation...and just what are y'alls opinions of this?
A couple came into my shop a few days ago and the manager waited on them. The hubby brings out an rx that reads EXACTLY as follows:
-4.00 U4
-4.00 U4
Baush & Lomb
Although it wasn't said outright, after a few questions it's determined that the man is a general practitioner and he wrote the RX for his wife. And yes, Bausch was spelled "Baush"...
Are there any "rules" against a doc who is not an optometrist or an ophthalmologist writing a CL RX, since it's not a narcotic?
I find it extremely irresponsible of someone in the health care profession to be so lax in the proper care of a loved ones eyes...
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