Someone said today that the most common prescription for myopia is between -1 & -2. They sounded pretty convinced, is it true?
Someone said today that the most common prescription for myopia is between -1 & -2. They sounded pretty convinced, is it true?
:D i, would have to say the most common is probably nearer to 3 diopters, and in fact if you look at a lot of the test sets on hard cl,s, gas perms etc. there usually three diopters in power.
Harry
This was based on full time wear in this category. The person who 'claimed' this based it on the fact that there appears to be an increasing trend to wear prescriptions in the -1/-2 full time.
:D CK, i was basing it on full time also, increasing trend on -1.00 to 2.00, i would say no, have not seen that, basically what you see in most all sperichal contact lens sales are -.75 to -7.00, 3.00 bring about the median.
.....If theres any trend we are seeing it is to better lenses such as the B&L purevision and ciba night and day.
The population is pretty much "normally distributed," with perhaps a slightly skew towards hyperopia if I remember correctly. This means that most people are relatively emmetropic (or near plano), and that the farther you get from emmetropia the smaller the number of people that have a refractive error of that magnitude. Consequently, there would be more -1.00 myopes than -2.00 myopes and more -0.50 myopes than -1.00 myopes.
Best regards,
Darryl
Hello CLK,
As to scripts between -1.00 and -2.00 being a "trend" for full time wear let me say this; a person with a -0.75 script can do better wearing their glasses full time (i.e. they will see clearer) a person with a -1.00 should be wearing their glasses full time but can "function" without wearing them until the muscles fatigue later in the day. A person wearing a -2.00 can't pass the drivers eye test to renew a drivers license and shouldn't be doing much of anything without their glasses on unless they don't like to see what they're doing.
Now, prescriptions in or around the -1.00 to -2.00 range being more "common" it would really depend on the area to an extent. Some offices may see more farsighted patients while others see more nearsighted patients or it could be equal etc. In our area we do see the -1.00 to -2.00 scripts frequently but no more so than higher - scripts.
Is there a trend to prescribe -1.00's and -2.00's more often? No. If the patient needs it then they need it, so inadvertantly prescribing such scripts would not be a common occurance. Are there more people in need of these types of scripts because of their environment? Doubtful but you just never know. Could something they are doing be causing it? Maybe but there's not enough conclusive evidence to support the idea yet.
I hope that answered your questions.
Take care,
Darris C.
Oh no, we're back to 'wear' again ... but if your wear recommendations are followed by other eye docs isn't it likely there might be more -1 type full-time wearers out there (as Darryl says - there are proportionately more of them)?
I guess the recommendation the eye doc is a real influence. At -1 (my first prescription) I was told I wouldn't get past the drivers' test but I thought I still had near 'normal' vision. If someone had said, as you do, a person with a -1.00 should be wearing their glasses full time but can "function" without wearing them I might have thought differently, all the time I thought I had a real low prescription so should put up with it. Isn't that so dumb, that anyone would need permission?
So guess you can tell it's all weird now to me .. my eye doc recommending wear more, you guys saying much the same. I figure I've spent 3 years in denial, hard to come to terms with that and the fact that I might need them more than I thought!! (I'm pretty used to what I don't see!). Ah well.
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