We had a patient come in for an exam last night wearing bi-concave single vision CR39 lenses. She also has reading glasses (didn't have those with her), and in conjunction with our lead OD, who examined her, she decided she is ready for a bifocal. Her Rx is -11.25 right and -12.50 left. She's originally from England, and the glasses she is wearing were made by an optician in London. Her new Rx is the same in distance and calls for a +2.00 add.
Her current lenses have a base of -2.00. My inclination was to put her in a bi-concave bifocal, seeing as she is used to that kind of front surface. The only lens blank available is for a round-seg, maximum seg diameter of 28mm. I advised the patient and wrote up the job. As we were closing up, the OD and I had a conversation, and he told me I was being far too cautious and "over-thinking" the situation, and advised we go with a FT28 with a plano base, considering that the FT is a superior lens.
As I was driving home, I also wondered why I'd gone with a bifocal to begin with. After all, all she has to do is move her glasses down her nose a smidge and she'll get her reading Rx, right?
So what do you think? Am I overthinking this? Am I being far too cautious in wanting to keep this patient in a bi-concave lens? What would you do?
Thanks for the input. :idea:
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